Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
14.06.2025 10:01
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Why do foolish atheists think their strange delusional theories are facts?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
You'll usually find your answer there.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
There's no rule.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Why do boobs of some girls bounce when they walk?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.